1. Which of the following statements regarding leaders and managers is NOT true?
a. A manager always has the ability to influence others; a leader may not.
b. A manager has a formal title and authority.
c. A leader may either be a manager or a nonmanager.
d. All managers perform four major functions: planning, organizing, leading, and
controlling.
2. Which of the following leadership theories attempts to explain distinctive characteristics for
leadership effectiveness?
a. interpersonal
b. trait
c. integrative
d. behavioral
3. Which of the following is NOT one of Mintzberg’s interpersonal leadership roles?
a. figurehead
b. entrepreneur
c. leader
d. liaison
4. In your position, you serve on committees with people from outside of your organizational
units and attend professional meetings. These are expectations for Mintzberg’s interpersonal
role of ___________.
a. disseminator
b. figurehead
c. liaison
d. resource-allocator
5. Your leader has asked you to design a new performance evaluation system. Designing the
system is an example of which of Mintzberg’s managerial roles?
a. entrepreneur
b. interpersonal
c. disturbance-handler
d. negotiator
6. The three levels of analysis of leadership theory are ___________.
a. individual, group, and organizational
b. team, group, and organizational
c. leader, group, and organizational
d. interpersonal, leader, and group
7. The individual level of analysis which focuses on the leader’s relationship with individual
followers is also called the ___________ process.
a. group
b. dyadic
c. organizational
d. conceptual
8. Early leadership studies were based on the assumption that leaders are ___________.
a. autocratic
b. primarily male
c. born, not made
d. also managers
9. Which of the following statements regarding personality is true?
a. Personality is developed based on genetics and environmental factors.
b. Personality predicts behavior and job performance.
c. Personality affects behavior as well as perceptions and attitudes.
d. All of the above.
10. The _________ personality dimension includes traits related to self-control and how well one
remains under pressure.
a. agreeableness
b. conscientiousness
c. surgency
d. adjustment
11. Of the Big Five personality dimensions, the highest correlation with leadership is _________.
a. conscientiousness
b. openness to experience
c. surgency
d. adjustment
12. Which of the following is NOT a trait of an effective leader?
a. dominance
b. high energy
c. intelligence
d. talent
13. Which of the following is NOT a belief of David McClelland?
a. Needs are based on personality.
b. All people possess the need for achievement, power, and affiliation, but to varying
degrees.
c. Our needs are motivated by our behavior.
d. Needs are developed as we interact with the environment.
14. The Leader Motive Profile (LMP) defines which motive as the highest need for leaders?
a. achievement
b. power
c. affiliation
d. enjoyment
15. ________ are positive or negative feelings about people, things, and issues.
a. Attitudes
b. Norms
c. Beliefs
d. Traits
16. A manager from a prestigious university believed that employees who were from “lesser
schools” lacked sufficient intelligence and motivation for the high-tech firm that she led.
She set goals for these employees low, and did not trust them with certain important tasks
or company information. The employees, in fact, tended to show dissatisfaction and low
performance. At length, many of them quit. This would be an example of ___________.
a. Theory Y
b. the Pygmalion effect
c. negative self-concept
d. None of the above.
17. The University of Iowa studies led to an era of ___________ research.
a. behavioral
b. trait
c. personality
d. participation
18. __________ is credited as being the first to identify the participative leadership style that is
commonly used today.
a. Maslow
b. Vroom
c. Herzberg
d. Likert
19. Based on extensive research, Blake and Mouton would expect the best performance from a
firm whose leadership ____________.
a. displays an ultimate priority of meeting employees’ needs
b. sets the highest priority on task completion
c. puts a balanced and moderate managerial effort between meeting employees’ needs
and task completion
d. puts the highest priority on both meeting employees’ needs and task completion
20. Which of the following is NOT one of the four major assumptions that Abraham Maslow
based his hierarchy of needs theory on?
a. People’s needs are arranged in order of importance going from basic to complex
needs.
b. People will not be motivated to satisfy a higher-level need unless the lower-level
need(s) has been at least minimally satisfied.
c. Both met and unmet needs motivate.
d. People have five classifications of needs.
21. To motivate his highest performers, a manager gives his highest performer each month an
“Employee of the Month” award and a parking space next to his. Of what motivational
theory is this an example?
a. goal-setting
b. equity
c. expectancy
d. Reinforcement theory
22. Which of the following is NOT a category of needs in the acquired needs theory?
a. success
b. power
c. achievement
d. affiliation
23. To motivate employees with a high n Pow, you should do all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Let them plan and control their jobs as much as possible.
b. Try to include them in decision making.
c. Try to assign them to a whole task rather than just a part of a task.
d. Let them work as part of a team.
24. The process motivation theories are alike in that all focus on ___________.
a. understanding how people choose behavior to fulfill their needs
b. explaining and predicting behavior based on people’s needs
c. reinforcement of positive behaviors
d. giving praise
25. Today, more companies are looking for graduates with ___________.
a. more collective responsibility
b. international openness and flexibility
c. more holistic concern for employees
d. longer periods of employment
26. Which of the following is NOT one of the variables that determine situational favorableness?
a. task structure
b. locus of control
c. position power
d. leader−member relations
27. Which of the following best represents a situation in which a relationship-oriented
leadership style should be used?
a. A leader with strong power has good relations with a nonrepetitive task worker.
b. A leader with strong power has poor relations with a repetitive task worker.
c. A leader with strong power has good relations with a repetitive task worker.
d. A leader with weak power has poor relations with a nonrepetitive task worker.
28. The leader who permits followers to make ongoing decisions within defined limits uses
which style on the leadership continuum model?
a. 4
b. 7
c. 6
d. 1
29. Authoritarianism is the degree to which employees ___________.
a. defer to others
b. want to be told what to do
c. want to be told how to do the job
d. All of the above.
30. ___________ leadership is appropriate when followers are open to autocratic leadership,
have external locus of control, and follower ability is high.
a. Directive
b. Supportive
c. Participative
d. Achievement-oriented
31. The normative leadership model uses decision trees that are ___________.
a. time-driven and developmental-driven
b. leader-driven and follower-driven
c. task-driven and people-driven
d. goal-driven and decision-driven
32. The normative leadership model includes all of the following leadership styles EXCEPT:
a. decide
b. consult group
c. facilitate
d. participative
33. As a manager, you can influence people to do things that they normally would not have done
through your use of ___________ power, which is derived from top management.
a. personal
b. position
c. political
d. coercive
34. The consultation influencing tactic is also known as ___________.
a. participative management
b. coalition building
c. group influencing
d. consultant power
35. When you develop a rational persuasion, you should do all of the following EXCEPT:
a. focus on how you and the organization benefit by achieving the objective
b. offer a detailed step-by-step plan
c. explain how potential problems and concerns will be handled
d. demonstrate how to do a task, when possible
36. To increase your reward power, __________.
a. exercise your authority regularly
b. develop your people skills
c. let people know you control rewards
d. use rewards for personal benefit
37. __________ power is based on the user’s relationship with influential people.
a. Reward
b. Legitimate
c. Referent
d. Connection
38. Politics __________.
a. is a medium of exchange
b. has a negative connotation
c. is inherently neither good nor bad
d. All of the above.
39. Money and power have a similar use in that both are used ___________.
a. to obtain desires
b. as a medium of exchange
c. to accomplish objectives
d. to exert control
40. Which of the following is a guideline for developing political skills?
a. learn the organizational culture
b. gain recognition
c. tune out the grapevine
d. secretly pursue your self-interests
41. The manager of a manufacturing plant is inaugurating a major quality initiative and is
planning the announcement to the employees. She has considered the goal and mode of
the message. What other issue should be considered in this planning?
a. who should receive the message
b. the timing of the message
c. whether to solicit feedback
d. All of the above.
42. The value of stating the objectives of communication is to ________.
a. establish rapport
b. get buy-in from the recipient
c. elicit feedback before continuing the communication
d. help the receiver put the details into context
43. To check for the receiver’s understanding in oral communication, you ask him or her:
a. “ Do you have any questions?”
b. direct questions
c. indirect questions
d. to paraphrase the message
44. All of the following are components of listening EXCEPT:
a. paying attention
b. asking questions
c. not assuming and interrupting
d. watching and attending to only verbal cues
45. Which of the following is a component of checking understanding?
a. asking questions
b. conveying meaning
c. watching nonverbal cues
d. paying attention
46. An employee has mismanaged a client relationship and lost the client. As the manager, you
want to use a self-evaluation type of coaching feedback. Which of the following might
apply?
a. “I told you to be careful with that relationship.”
b. “I guess that this just shows why we emphasize training.”
c. “When you lose clients, that makes me frustrated.”
d. “Why do you suppose that client dropped us and went to our competitor?”
47. Which of the following is used to explain the process managers go through in determining
the reasons for effective or ineffective performance and deciding what to do about it?
a. attribution theory
b. psychological contract
c. performance formula
d. BCF model
48. In the performance formula, John and his team are not performing as well as other teams.
Based on your assessment of the situation, you believe that John and his team have the
ability to perform well and seem to be motivated to do the work. What should you do next?
a. Get John’s commitment to change.
b. Have John and his team sign a psychological contract.
c. Check to see what resources they may be lacking.
d. Send them to training.
49. Which of the following statements best describes the vertical dyadic linkage theory?
a. The focus is on the quality of each dyad.
b. Leaders aspire to build positive relationships with all followers.
c. Linkages among peers are disavowed.
d. Leader−follower interactions create in-groups and out-groups.
50. Leaders mostly use all of the following types of power to influence out-group members
EXCEPT:
a. legitimate power
b. referent power
c. reward power
d. coercive power
51. Which of the following statements regarding in-groups and out-groups is NOT true?
a. In-group followers routinely receive higher performance ratings than out-group
followers.
b. In-group followers do not require as much attention as out-group followers.
c. In-group followers give more positive ratings when evaluating organizational climate
than out-group followers.
d. Out-group followers routinely show higher levels of turnover than in-group followers.
52. All of the following are factors that determine LMX quality EXCEPT:
a. follower attributes
b. situational factors
c. organizational culture
d. leader and follower perceptions of each other
53. As Jim’s leader, you have noticed that he is low on involvement and high on critical
thinking, and you have concluded that Jim is a(n) __________ follower.
a. alienated
b. conformist
c. passive
d. pragmatic
54. The __________ follower is someone who is high on critical thinking and involvement.
a. alienated
b. conformist
c. effective
d. pragmatic
55. When challenging a leader’s flawed plans and proposals, it is important for the follower to
___________.
a. pinpoint specifics
b. personalize the critique
c. provide both positive and negative feedback
d. ask for suggestions
56. People with a(n) ___________ locus of control believe that they are “masters of their own
destiny” and can influence people and events in their workplace.
a. internal
b. external
c. neutral
d. optimal
57. Which of the following describes a team vs. a group?
a. A group implies a sense of collective responsibility.
b. A team tends to have shared responsibilities.
c. A team implies a sense of shared mission.
d. b and c only
58. Shirking of individual responsibility is also known as ___________.
a. groupthink
b. synergy
c. social loafing
d. task facilitation
59. Which of the following statements regarding team diversity is NOT true?
a. A disadvantage of team diversity is the increased likelihood of groupthink.
b. Team diversity brings diverse points of view to bear on problems.
c. Teams that do not manage diversity well have a good chance for intrateam conflicts.
d. Not all diverse teams perform well.
60. One of the prescriptions for success in using the leader-centered decision-making model is
that the leader should ___________.
a. discourage members from expressing their feelings
b. relinquish control to the team and allow it to make the final choice in all appropriate
kinds of decisions
c. listen attentively and observe nonverbal cues to be aware of member needs, feelings,
interactions, and conflict
d. All of the above.
61. Before calling a meeting, the leader should do all of the following EXCEPT:
a. decide who should attend the meeting.
b. identify the activities that will take place during the meeting.
c. set aside at least 3−4 hours to prepare for the meeting.
d. clearly define the purpose and set objectives to be accomplished during the meeting.
62. During meetings, the team leader should focus on all of the following EXCEPT:
a. group structure
b. group process
c. group development
d. group effectiveness
63. Which of the following does NOT describe a self-managed team?
a. fixed team design
b. team accountability
c. multiskilled skills
d. leadership within the team
64. A self-managed team ___________ is an advocate of the self-managed team concept whose
responsibility is to help the team obtain necessary resources, gain political support from
top management and other stakeholders of the organization, and defend it from enemy
attacks.
a. facilitator
b. leader
c. champion
d. director
65. Max Weber defined “charisma” as a form of influence based on ___________.
a. traditional authority systems
b. follower perceptions
c. leader−member exchange
d. legal−rational authority systems
66. Which of the following is NOT one of the behavior attributes that distinguish charismatic
from noncharismatic leaders?
a. use of unconventional strategies for achieving desired change
b. dissatisfaction with the status quo
c. compelling nature of the vision
d. use of rewards and incentives for motivating followers
67. The debate concerning the locus of charismatic leadership states that charisma could be the
result of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. the emotional involvement of the followers
b. the leader’s extraordinary qualities
c. the situation or social climate facing the leader
d. an interaction of the situation and the leader’s qualities
68. An effect of charismatic leadership on followers is to cause them to ___________.
a. assume greater risk
b. set or accept higher goals
c. have greater confidence in their ability to contribute to the achievement of goals
d. All of the above.
69. Socialized charismatic leaders __________.
a. pursue leader-driven goals
b. promote feelings of empowerment, personal growth, and equal participation in
followers
c. restrict information
d. All of the above.
70. In the four stage model of the transformation process, which of the following is the first
stage?
a. institutionalize change
b. challenge the status quo and make a convincing case for change
c. inspire a shared vision of the future
d. provide effective leadership during the change
71. Transactional leaders ___________.
a. appeal to higher ideals and moral values
b. get followers to act by giving them something that they desire in exchange for
compliance
c. attempt to think “outside of the box”
d. rely heavily on the articulation of a vision to inspire subordinates
72. The key to successful stewardship is based on all of the following values EXCEPT:
a. strong teamwork orientation
b. effective listening
c. equality assumption
d. reward assumption
73. Which of the following is a function of culture?
a. It keeps diversity from becoming extreme.
b. It results in strategic alignment.
c. It helps the organization adapt to the external environment.
d. All of the above.
74. Insular thinking is an attribute of a(n) __________ culture.
a. low-performance
b. high-performance
c. bureaucratic
d. adaptive
75. All of the following are substantive leadership actions for shaping culture EXCEPT:
a. matching HR practices to culture.
b. aligning reward/incentive system with culture.
c. developing a written values statement.
d. interacting face-to-face with rank-and-file.
76. A new CEO is appointed to Xex Corporation. Which of the following should occur for there to be successful outcomes in changing Xex’s organizational culture?
a. The CEO traits and values fit the organization’s values.
b. The CEO frequently attends both ceremonial and non-ceremonial events.
c. The CEO’s behaviors match his/her espoused values.
d. All of the above.
77. _________ culture represents a leadership belief in strong, mutually reinforcing exchanges
and linkages between employees and departments.
a. Cooperative
b. Adaptive
c. Competitive
d. Bureaucratic
78. Organizations with __________ cultures are highly structured and efficiency driven.
a. competitive
b. adaptive
c. bureaucratic
d. cooperative
79. An employee’s disclosure of illegal or unethical practices on the part of the organization is
called ___________.
a. ethical disclosure
b. whistle blowing
c. moral reasoning
d. individualism
80. ___________ has a high power-distance culture.
a. Germany
b. The United States
c. Ireland
d. France
81. Strategic ___________ is the process of providing the direction and inspiration necessary to
create and implement a firm’s vision, mission, and strategies to achieve organizational
objectives.
a. management
b. leadership
c. necessity
d. vision
82. The effective strategist must be capable of which of the following?
a. communicating effectively
b. deciding on appropriate goals and priorities
c. anticipating and forecasting events in the external environment
d. All of the above.
83. Strategic __________ is the set of decisions and actions used to formulate and implement
specific strategies that will achieve a competitively superior fit between the organization
and its environment so as to achieve organizational goals.
a. leadership
b. analysis
c. management
d. vision
84. Goal-setting theory asserts that people with __________ goals perform better than those with
__________ goals.
a. strategic; corporate
b. vague; strategic
c. specific; strategic
d. stretch; vague
85. Competitive advantage is improved when a firm’s __________.
a. core competencies match external environmental opportunities
b. vision is benchmarked from industry-best practices
c. strategic moves match those of its best competitors
d. All of the above.
86. __________ change is an alteration in an organization’s alignment with its external
environment.
a. Strategic
b. Organizational
c. Functional
d. None of the above.
87. Which of the following is a phase or stage of the change process?
a. unfreezing
b. changing
c. refreezing
d. All of the above.
88. Which of the following is/are stages in Lewin’s classic theory of change?
a. unfreezing
b. establishing a sense of urgency
c. changing, moving to a new, desired state
d. a and c only
89. In the three stage model of change, the __________ phase is also known as cognitive
restructuring because it is where the actual change takes place.
a. unfreezing
b. changing
c. refreezing
d. Sense of urgency
90. Effective leaders can create psychological safety for employees who fear change by
__________.
a. providing opportunities for training and education
b. slowing the pace of change as much as possible
c. downplaying any resistance
d. implementing incremental, rather than radical, change
91. Strategic crisis leadership requires all of the following EXCEPT:
a. integrating crisis management into the strategic management process so it remains a
regular part of the overall strategy−evaluation process
b. using environmental monitoring techniques to identify events that could trigger crises
in the future
c. identifying emerging patterns or trends in the regulatory environment, competitive
landscape, and social environment
d. establishing a culture that embraces crisis awareness and preparation as a way of
life
92. Emerging trends in the current business environment that make crisis management
especially important among the skills of leadership include ___________.
a. technological advances
b. the economic downturn
c. the overall desirability of learning about risk matrices
d. All of the above.
93. The primary duties of the crisis leader may include activities such as ___________.
a. coordinating the activities of the crisis management team to ensure that the members
work well together
b. requiring individuals or departments to keep logs of complaints or incidents
c. monitoring customer and employee complaints and behavior
d. All of the above.
94. Which of the following is NOT one of the steps in the risk assessment process?
a. risk reduction
b. risk identification
c. crisis management
d. risk analysis
95. The best gauge to determine an organization’s readiness to respond to a crisis is how it rates
according to which of the following factors?
a. awareness and access to crisis management information
b. readiness for a quick response
c. effective communication plan in place
d. All of the above.
96. A __________ is a printed statement that describes how an organization is responding to a
crisis and who is in charge.
a. press release
b. crisis bulletin
c. press kit
d. crisis release
97. Which of the following is a characteristic of a traditional organization?
a. flat horizontal structure
b. personal and group networks of free, open exchanges with no filters
c. centralized decision making
d. loose, flexible, and adaptive roles
98. All of the following are characteristics of traditional organizations EXCEPT:
a. adaptive culture that encourages continuous improvement and change
b. stable environment
c. vertical structure
d. rigid culture that is not responsive to change
99. ___________ change occurs when anticipated or expected changes bear no resemblance to
the present or the past.
a. Acquisitional
b. Radical
c. Organizational
d. Discontinuous
100. The encouragement of systems thinking __________.
a. is a task of leaders who seek to enhance organizational learning
b. has the best results in traditional organizations
c. was a driving force in the 1980s, but has been largely discarded in favor of
specialized thinking
d. increases efficiency, but appears to deter creativity
Get Answer
a. A manager always has the ability to influence others; a leader may not.
b. A manager has a formal title and authority.
c. A leader may either be a manager or a nonmanager.
d. All managers perform four major functions: planning, organizing, leading, and
controlling.
2. Which of the following leadership theories attempts to explain distinctive characteristics for
leadership effectiveness?
a. interpersonal
b. trait
c. integrative
d. behavioral
3. Which of the following is NOT one of Mintzberg’s interpersonal leadership roles?
a. figurehead
b. entrepreneur
c. leader
d. liaison
4. In your position, you serve on committees with people from outside of your organizational
units and attend professional meetings. These are expectations for Mintzberg’s interpersonal
role of ___________.
a. disseminator
b. figurehead
c. liaison
d. resource-allocator
5. Your leader has asked you to design a new performance evaluation system. Designing the
system is an example of which of Mintzberg’s managerial roles?
a. entrepreneur
b. interpersonal
c. disturbance-handler
d. negotiator
6. The three levels of analysis of leadership theory are ___________.
a. individual, group, and organizational
b. team, group, and organizational
c. leader, group, and organizational
d. interpersonal, leader, and group
7. The individual level of analysis which focuses on the leader’s relationship with individual
followers is also called the ___________ process.
a. group
b. dyadic
c. organizational
d. conceptual
8. Early leadership studies were based on the assumption that leaders are ___________.
a. autocratic
b. primarily male
c. born, not made
d. also managers
9. Which of the following statements regarding personality is true?
a. Personality is developed based on genetics and environmental factors.
b. Personality predicts behavior and job performance.
c. Personality affects behavior as well as perceptions and attitudes.
d. All of the above.
10. The _________ personality dimension includes traits related to self-control and how well one
remains under pressure.
a. agreeableness
b. conscientiousness
c. surgency
d. adjustment
11. Of the Big Five personality dimensions, the highest correlation with leadership is _________.
a. conscientiousness
b. openness to experience
c. surgency
d. adjustment
12. Which of the following is NOT a trait of an effective leader?
a. dominance
b. high energy
c. intelligence
d. talent
13. Which of the following is NOT a belief of David McClelland?
a. Needs are based on personality.
b. All people possess the need for achievement, power, and affiliation, but to varying
degrees.
c. Our needs are motivated by our behavior.
d. Needs are developed as we interact with the environment.
14. The Leader Motive Profile (LMP) defines which motive as the highest need for leaders?
a. achievement
b. power
c. affiliation
d. enjoyment
15. ________ are positive or negative feelings about people, things, and issues.
a. Attitudes
b. Norms
c. Beliefs
d. Traits
16. A manager from a prestigious university believed that employees who were from “lesser
schools” lacked sufficient intelligence and motivation for the high-tech firm that she led.
She set goals for these employees low, and did not trust them with certain important tasks
or company information. The employees, in fact, tended to show dissatisfaction and low
performance. At length, many of them quit. This would be an example of ___________.
a. Theory Y
b. the Pygmalion effect
c. negative self-concept
d. None of the above.
17. The University of Iowa studies led to an era of ___________ research.
a. behavioral
b. trait
c. personality
d. participation
18. __________ is credited as being the first to identify the participative leadership style that is
commonly used today.
a. Maslow
b. Vroom
c. Herzberg
d. Likert
19. Based on extensive research, Blake and Mouton would expect the best performance from a
firm whose leadership ____________.
a. displays an ultimate priority of meeting employees’ needs
b. sets the highest priority on task completion
c. puts a balanced and moderate managerial effort between meeting employees’ needs
and task completion
d. puts the highest priority on both meeting employees’ needs and task completion
20. Which of the following is NOT one of the four major assumptions that Abraham Maslow
based his hierarchy of needs theory on?
a. People’s needs are arranged in order of importance going from basic to complex
needs.
b. People will not be motivated to satisfy a higher-level need unless the lower-level
need(s) has been at least minimally satisfied.
c. Both met and unmet needs motivate.
d. People have five classifications of needs.
21. To motivate his highest performers, a manager gives his highest performer each month an
“Employee of the Month” award and a parking space next to his. Of what motivational
theory is this an example?
a. goal-setting
b. equity
c. expectancy
d. Reinforcement theory
22. Which of the following is NOT a category of needs in the acquired needs theory?
a. success
b. power
c. achievement
d. affiliation
23. To motivate employees with a high n Pow, you should do all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Let them plan and control their jobs as much as possible.
b. Try to include them in decision making.
c. Try to assign them to a whole task rather than just a part of a task.
d. Let them work as part of a team.
24. The process motivation theories are alike in that all focus on ___________.
a. understanding how people choose behavior to fulfill their needs
b. explaining and predicting behavior based on people’s needs
c. reinforcement of positive behaviors
d. giving praise
25. Today, more companies are looking for graduates with ___________.
a. more collective responsibility
b. international openness and flexibility
c. more holistic concern for employees
d. longer periods of employment
26. Which of the following is NOT one of the variables that determine situational favorableness?
a. task structure
b. locus of control
c. position power
d. leader−member relations
27. Which of the following best represents a situation in which a relationship-oriented
leadership style should be used?
a. A leader with strong power has good relations with a nonrepetitive task worker.
b. A leader with strong power has poor relations with a repetitive task worker.
c. A leader with strong power has good relations with a repetitive task worker.
d. A leader with weak power has poor relations with a nonrepetitive task worker.
28. The leader who permits followers to make ongoing decisions within defined limits uses
which style on the leadership continuum model?
a. 4
b. 7
c. 6
d. 1
29. Authoritarianism is the degree to which employees ___________.
a. defer to others
b. want to be told what to do
c. want to be told how to do the job
d. All of the above.
30. ___________ leadership is appropriate when followers are open to autocratic leadership,
have external locus of control, and follower ability is high.
a. Directive
b. Supportive
c. Participative
d. Achievement-oriented
31. The normative leadership model uses decision trees that are ___________.
a. time-driven and developmental-driven
b. leader-driven and follower-driven
c. task-driven and people-driven
d. goal-driven and decision-driven
32. The normative leadership model includes all of the following leadership styles EXCEPT:
a. decide
b. consult group
c. facilitate
d. participative
33. As a manager, you can influence people to do things that they normally would not have done
through your use of ___________ power, which is derived from top management.
a. personal
b. position
c. political
d. coercive
34. The consultation influencing tactic is also known as ___________.
a. participative management
b. coalition building
c. group influencing
d. consultant power
35. When you develop a rational persuasion, you should do all of the following EXCEPT:
a. focus on how you and the organization benefit by achieving the objective
b. offer a detailed step-by-step plan
c. explain how potential problems and concerns will be handled
d. demonstrate how to do a task, when possible
36. To increase your reward power, __________.
a. exercise your authority regularly
b. develop your people skills
c. let people know you control rewards
d. use rewards for personal benefit
37. __________ power is based on the user’s relationship with influential people.
a. Reward
b. Legitimate
c. Referent
d. Connection
38. Politics __________.
a. is a medium of exchange
b. has a negative connotation
c. is inherently neither good nor bad
d. All of the above.
39. Money and power have a similar use in that both are used ___________.
a. to obtain desires
b. as a medium of exchange
c. to accomplish objectives
d. to exert control
40. Which of the following is a guideline for developing political skills?
a. learn the organizational culture
b. gain recognition
c. tune out the grapevine
d. secretly pursue your self-interests
41. The manager of a manufacturing plant is inaugurating a major quality initiative and is
planning the announcement to the employees. She has considered the goal and mode of
the message. What other issue should be considered in this planning?
a. who should receive the message
b. the timing of the message
c. whether to solicit feedback
d. All of the above.
42. The value of stating the objectives of communication is to ________.
a. establish rapport
b. get buy-in from the recipient
c. elicit feedback before continuing the communication
d. help the receiver put the details into context
43. To check for the receiver’s understanding in oral communication, you ask him or her:
a. “ Do you have any questions?”
b. direct questions
c. indirect questions
d. to paraphrase the message
44. All of the following are components of listening EXCEPT:
a. paying attention
b. asking questions
c. not assuming and interrupting
d. watching and attending to only verbal cues
45. Which of the following is a component of checking understanding?
a. asking questions
b. conveying meaning
c. watching nonverbal cues
d. paying attention
46. An employee has mismanaged a client relationship and lost the client. As the manager, you
want to use a self-evaluation type of coaching feedback. Which of the following might
apply?
a. “I told you to be careful with that relationship.”
b. “I guess that this just shows why we emphasize training.”
c. “When you lose clients, that makes me frustrated.”
d. “Why do you suppose that client dropped us and went to our competitor?”
47. Which of the following is used to explain the process managers go through in determining
the reasons for effective or ineffective performance and deciding what to do about it?
a. attribution theory
b. psychological contract
c. performance formula
d. BCF model
48. In the performance formula, John and his team are not performing as well as other teams.
Based on your assessment of the situation, you believe that John and his team have the
ability to perform well and seem to be motivated to do the work. What should you do next?
a. Get John’s commitment to change.
b. Have John and his team sign a psychological contract.
c. Check to see what resources they may be lacking.
d. Send them to training.
49. Which of the following statements best describes the vertical dyadic linkage theory?
a. The focus is on the quality of each dyad.
b. Leaders aspire to build positive relationships with all followers.
c. Linkages among peers are disavowed.
d. Leader−follower interactions create in-groups and out-groups.
50. Leaders mostly use all of the following types of power to influence out-group members
EXCEPT:
a. legitimate power
b. referent power
c. reward power
d. coercive power
51. Which of the following statements regarding in-groups and out-groups is NOT true?
a. In-group followers routinely receive higher performance ratings than out-group
followers.
b. In-group followers do not require as much attention as out-group followers.
c. In-group followers give more positive ratings when evaluating organizational climate
than out-group followers.
d. Out-group followers routinely show higher levels of turnover than in-group followers.
52. All of the following are factors that determine LMX quality EXCEPT:
a. follower attributes
b. situational factors
c. organizational culture
d. leader and follower perceptions of each other
53. As Jim’s leader, you have noticed that he is low on involvement and high on critical
thinking, and you have concluded that Jim is a(n) __________ follower.
a. alienated
b. conformist
c. passive
d. pragmatic
54. The __________ follower is someone who is high on critical thinking and involvement.
a. alienated
b. conformist
c. effective
d. pragmatic
55. When challenging a leader’s flawed plans and proposals, it is important for the follower to
___________.
a. pinpoint specifics
b. personalize the critique
c. provide both positive and negative feedback
d. ask for suggestions
56. People with a(n) ___________ locus of control believe that they are “masters of their own
destiny” and can influence people and events in their workplace.
a. internal
b. external
c. neutral
d. optimal
57. Which of the following describes a team vs. a group?
a. A group implies a sense of collective responsibility.
b. A team tends to have shared responsibilities.
c. A team implies a sense of shared mission.
d. b and c only
58. Shirking of individual responsibility is also known as ___________.
a. groupthink
b. synergy
c. social loafing
d. task facilitation
59. Which of the following statements regarding team diversity is NOT true?
a. A disadvantage of team diversity is the increased likelihood of groupthink.
b. Team diversity brings diverse points of view to bear on problems.
c. Teams that do not manage diversity well have a good chance for intrateam conflicts.
d. Not all diverse teams perform well.
60. One of the prescriptions for success in using the leader-centered decision-making model is
that the leader should ___________.
a. discourage members from expressing their feelings
b. relinquish control to the team and allow it to make the final choice in all appropriate
kinds of decisions
c. listen attentively and observe nonverbal cues to be aware of member needs, feelings,
interactions, and conflict
d. All of the above.
61. Before calling a meeting, the leader should do all of the following EXCEPT:
a. decide who should attend the meeting.
b. identify the activities that will take place during the meeting.
c. set aside at least 3−4 hours to prepare for the meeting.
d. clearly define the purpose and set objectives to be accomplished during the meeting.
62. During meetings, the team leader should focus on all of the following EXCEPT:
a. group structure
b. group process
c. group development
d. group effectiveness
63. Which of the following does NOT describe a self-managed team?
a. fixed team design
b. team accountability
c. multiskilled skills
d. leadership within the team
64. A self-managed team ___________ is an advocate of the self-managed team concept whose
responsibility is to help the team obtain necessary resources, gain political support from
top management and other stakeholders of the organization, and defend it from enemy
attacks.
a. facilitator
b. leader
c. champion
d. director
65. Max Weber defined “charisma” as a form of influence based on ___________.
a. traditional authority systems
b. follower perceptions
c. leader−member exchange
d. legal−rational authority systems
66. Which of the following is NOT one of the behavior attributes that distinguish charismatic
from noncharismatic leaders?
a. use of unconventional strategies for achieving desired change
b. dissatisfaction with the status quo
c. compelling nature of the vision
d. use of rewards and incentives for motivating followers
67. The debate concerning the locus of charismatic leadership states that charisma could be the
result of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. the emotional involvement of the followers
b. the leader’s extraordinary qualities
c. the situation or social climate facing the leader
d. an interaction of the situation and the leader’s qualities
68. An effect of charismatic leadership on followers is to cause them to ___________.
a. assume greater risk
b. set or accept higher goals
c. have greater confidence in their ability to contribute to the achievement of goals
d. All of the above.
69. Socialized charismatic leaders __________.
a. pursue leader-driven goals
b. promote feelings of empowerment, personal growth, and equal participation in
followers
c. restrict information
d. All of the above.
70. In the four stage model of the transformation process, which of the following is the first
stage?
a. institutionalize change
b. challenge the status quo and make a convincing case for change
c. inspire a shared vision of the future
d. provide effective leadership during the change
71. Transactional leaders ___________.
a. appeal to higher ideals and moral values
b. get followers to act by giving them something that they desire in exchange for
compliance
c. attempt to think “outside of the box”
d. rely heavily on the articulation of a vision to inspire subordinates
72. The key to successful stewardship is based on all of the following values EXCEPT:
a. strong teamwork orientation
b. effective listening
c. equality assumption
d. reward assumption
73. Which of the following is a function of culture?
a. It keeps diversity from becoming extreme.
b. It results in strategic alignment.
c. It helps the organization adapt to the external environment.
d. All of the above.
74. Insular thinking is an attribute of a(n) __________ culture.
a. low-performance
b. high-performance
c. bureaucratic
d. adaptive
75. All of the following are substantive leadership actions for shaping culture EXCEPT:
a. matching HR practices to culture.
b. aligning reward/incentive system with culture.
c. developing a written values statement.
d. interacting face-to-face with rank-and-file.
76. A new CEO is appointed to Xex Corporation. Which of the following should occur for there to be successful outcomes in changing Xex’s organizational culture?
a. The CEO traits and values fit the organization’s values.
b. The CEO frequently attends both ceremonial and non-ceremonial events.
c. The CEO’s behaviors match his/her espoused values.
d. All of the above.
77. _________ culture represents a leadership belief in strong, mutually reinforcing exchanges
and linkages between employees and departments.
a. Cooperative
b. Adaptive
c. Competitive
d. Bureaucratic
78. Organizations with __________ cultures are highly structured and efficiency driven.
a. competitive
b. adaptive
c. bureaucratic
d. cooperative
79. An employee’s disclosure of illegal or unethical practices on the part of the organization is
called ___________.
a. ethical disclosure
b. whistle blowing
c. moral reasoning
d. individualism
80. ___________ has a high power-distance culture.
a. Germany
b. The United States
c. Ireland
d. France
81. Strategic ___________ is the process of providing the direction and inspiration necessary to
create and implement a firm’s vision, mission, and strategies to achieve organizational
objectives.
a. management
b. leadership
c. necessity
d. vision
82. The effective strategist must be capable of which of the following?
a. communicating effectively
b. deciding on appropriate goals and priorities
c. anticipating and forecasting events in the external environment
d. All of the above.
83. Strategic __________ is the set of decisions and actions used to formulate and implement
specific strategies that will achieve a competitively superior fit between the organization
and its environment so as to achieve organizational goals.
a. leadership
b. analysis
c. management
d. vision
84. Goal-setting theory asserts that people with __________ goals perform better than those with
__________ goals.
a. strategic; corporate
b. vague; strategic
c. specific; strategic
d. stretch; vague
85. Competitive advantage is improved when a firm’s __________.
a. core competencies match external environmental opportunities
b. vision is benchmarked from industry-best practices
c. strategic moves match those of its best competitors
d. All of the above.
86. __________ change is an alteration in an organization’s alignment with its external
environment.
a. Strategic
b. Organizational
c. Functional
d. None of the above.
87. Which of the following is a phase or stage of the change process?
a. unfreezing
b. changing
c. refreezing
d. All of the above.
88. Which of the following is/are stages in Lewin’s classic theory of change?
a. unfreezing
b. establishing a sense of urgency
c. changing, moving to a new, desired state
d. a and c only
89. In the three stage model of change, the __________ phase is also known as cognitive
restructuring because it is where the actual change takes place.
a. unfreezing
b. changing
c. refreezing
d. Sense of urgency
90. Effective leaders can create psychological safety for employees who fear change by
__________.
a. providing opportunities for training and education
b. slowing the pace of change as much as possible
c. downplaying any resistance
d. implementing incremental, rather than radical, change
91. Strategic crisis leadership requires all of the following EXCEPT:
a. integrating crisis management into the strategic management process so it remains a
regular part of the overall strategy−evaluation process
b. using environmental monitoring techniques to identify events that could trigger crises
in the future
c. identifying emerging patterns or trends in the regulatory environment, competitive
landscape, and social environment
d. establishing a culture that embraces crisis awareness and preparation as a way of
life
92. Emerging trends in the current business environment that make crisis management
especially important among the skills of leadership include ___________.
a. technological advances
b. the economic downturn
c. the overall desirability of learning about risk matrices
d. All of the above.
93. The primary duties of the crisis leader may include activities such as ___________.
a. coordinating the activities of the crisis management team to ensure that the members
work well together
b. requiring individuals or departments to keep logs of complaints or incidents
c. monitoring customer and employee complaints and behavior
d. All of the above.
94. Which of the following is NOT one of the steps in the risk assessment process?
a. risk reduction
b. risk identification
c. crisis management
d. risk analysis
95. The best gauge to determine an organization’s readiness to respond to a crisis is how it rates
according to which of the following factors?
a. awareness and access to crisis management information
b. readiness for a quick response
c. effective communication plan in place
d. All of the above.
96. A __________ is a printed statement that describes how an organization is responding to a
crisis and who is in charge.
a. press release
b. crisis bulletin
c. press kit
d. crisis release
97. Which of the following is a characteristic of a traditional organization?
a. flat horizontal structure
b. personal and group networks of free, open exchanges with no filters
c. centralized decision making
d. loose, flexible, and adaptive roles
98. All of the following are characteristics of traditional organizations EXCEPT:
a. adaptive culture that encourages continuous improvement and change
b. stable environment
c. vertical structure
d. rigid culture that is not responsive to change
99. ___________ change occurs when anticipated or expected changes bear no resemblance to
the present or the past.
a. Acquisitional
b. Radical
c. Organizational
d. Discontinuous
100. The encouragement of systems thinking __________.
a. is a task of leaders who seek to enhance organizational learning
b. has the best results in traditional organizations
c. was a driving force in the 1980s, but has been largely discarded in favor of
specialized thinking
d. increases efficiency, but appears to deter creativity
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